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ACCA ATX: Advanced Taxation Practice Questions
45 original practice questions for ACCA Advanced Taxation (ATX), written for this site with full explanations. The real ATX exam uses constructed-response questions; these multiple-choice questions test the underlying concepts. They are original questions - not taken from any official exam. Confirm details against ACCA's official materials.
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The fundamental distinction between tax evasion and tax avoidance is that:
Correct answer: B. Evasion is illegal: it involves dishonestly concealing income, inflating deductions or misrepresenting facts to the tax authority. Avoidance uses legal means to reduce liability, although aggressive avoidance may be challenged under anti-avoidance rules. The first option reverses the two terms, adviser approval cannot make evasion legal, and both concepts apply to companies and individuals alike. -
Transfers of assets between spouses or civil partners are useful in tax planning mainly because such transfers:
Correct answer: D. Transfers between spouses and civil partners are generally treated on a no-gain, no-loss basis and lifetime gifts between them are typically exempt from inheritance tax, so a couple can move income-producing assets or pregnant gains to whichever partner has unused allowances or lower marginal rates. They are not doubly taxed, the capital versus income character of the asset is unchanged, and future disposals or death can still trigger tax - the benefit is redistribution, not permanent escape. -
Deferring the disposal of a chargeable asset until early in the next tax year can be attractive because it:
Correct answer: C. Pushing a disposal into the next tax year defers the date the tax falls due (a cash-flow benefit) and lets the taxpayer use the next year's annual exemption or any unused lower-rate capacity in that year. The gain remains fully within the scope of tax and must still be reported, and its character stays capital - timing planning changes when and at what marginal position a gain is taxed, never whether it exists. -
Why does the distinction between income and capital matter so much in tax planning?
Correct answer: A. Whether a receipt is income or capital determines which tax applies, which reliefs and exemptions are available, and often the effective rate borne - so structuring a return as one or the other can change the outcome materially. Capital receipts are not automatically tax-free (they are typically within the capital gains regime), income is taxed as it arises rather than when spent, and the classification feeds directly into the tax computation, not just the bookkeeping. -
When comparing extracting profit from a company as salary versus dividends, a key structural difference is that:
Correct answer: D. Salary is a deductible expense for the company but triggers national insurance for both employer and employee; dividends come out of profits that have already borne corporation tax and carry no national insurance. The overall comparison therefore depends on the interaction of corporate tax relief, national insurance and the shareholder's personal position. The first option states the deductibility rule backwards, salary is taxable employment income, and dividends do not attract national insurance. -
Making personal pension contributions can reduce an individual's overall tax burden because contributions:
Correct answer: B. Pension contributions attract tax relief and, depending on how relief is given, extend the taxpayer's lower-rate band or reduce the income figure used to taper allowances - so they can pull income out of higher effective rates and restore tapered allowances. They are very much recognised for tax purposes, they do not transform salary into exempt capital (pension income is generally taxable when drawn later), and filing obligations are unaffected. -
The planning logic behind making lifetime gifts to individuals for inheritance tax purposes is that such gifts:
Correct answer: A. A lifetime gift to another individual is a potentially exempt transfer: no inheritance tax is due when it is made, and it escapes tax entirely if the donor survives the statutory period, with taper reducing the charge if death falls within it towards the end. Such gifts are not taxed immediately at death rates, they leave the estate rather than remaining in it (subject to rules on retained benefits), and no corporate structure is needed for the treatment to apply. -
A small business whose customers are mainly VAT-registered companies may choose to register for VAT before it is required to, because voluntary registration:
Correct answer: C. Voluntary registration lets the business reclaim input VAT on its costs; because its customers are VAT-registered businesses, the output VAT it must charge is recoverable by them, so registration creates a net saving with little commercial downside. Registration means charging VAT, not being exempt from it; it is open to businesses generally, not just retailers; and it increases rather than removes record-keeping obligations. -
A general anti-abuse rule (GAAR) is designed to:
Correct answer: B. A GAAR targets the extreme end of avoidance: arrangements whose entering into or carrying out cannot reasonably be regarded as a reasonable course of action in relation to the legislation (a deliberately high threshold, often described as a double reasonableness test). Ordinary reliefs and sensible planning remain legitimate, specific anti-avoidance rules continue to operate alongside the GAAR, and it applies to domestic as well as cross-border arrangements. -
When several capital tax reliefs could apply to the same transaction, careful planning is needed because:
Correct answer: D. Reliefs interact: a deferral relief can reduce a later base cost, a held-over gain can fall outside a relief that would have applied on an outright sale, and using one relief can waste an exemption or a lower rate that another route would have preserved. Many reliefs require claims and elections rather than applying automatically, most are optional rather than compulsory, and the whole point of planning is that they cannot simply be stacked without consequence. -
Rollover relief on the replacement of qualifying business assets works by:
Correct answer: A. Rollover relief defers the gain on a qualifying business asset by rolling it into the acquisition cost of the replacement: the new asset's base cost is reduced, so the deferred gain resurfaces on a later disposal unless further relief applies. The gain is deferred, not permanently exempted, and conditions on asset type, use and reinvestment timing must be met; the gain stays capital in nature and stays with the taxpayer, not the purchaser. -
Gift holdover relief on a qualifying gift of business assets means that:
Correct answer: C. Holdover relief on qualifying gifts postpones the donor's gain by deducting it from the donee's acquisition cost: the donor pays nothing now, and the held-over gain crystallises on the donee's eventual disposal. The donor does not pay immediately at any rate, the donee's base cost is market value reduced by the held-over gain rather than full market value, and the gain is deferred rather than eliminated. -
A capital gains relief for disposals of qualifying business interests applies a reduced tax rate up to a lifetime limit. In planning terms this means:
Correct answer: C. Because the reduced rate is capped by a per-person lifetime limit, a couple who can each satisfy the qualifying conditions (for example on shareholding and involvement in the business) can between them relieve a larger total of gains than one person alone - a standard planning point ahead of a business sale. The lifetime cap means the relief is not unlimited, gains remain chargeable gains taxed at the reduced rate rather than exempt income, and the relief must be claimed with conditions met over the required qualifying period. -
Business property relief for inheritance tax operates by:
Correct answer: A. Business property relief reduces the value transferred for inheritance tax purposes on qualifying business property - broadly, interests in trading businesses and certain unquoted trading company shares held for the required minimum period. It is a valuation reduction, not a refund mechanism; shares in mainly investment companies do not qualify, so not all shares are covered; and it removes value from charge rather than deferring the tax to a later sale. -
When deciding whether to gift an asset during lifetime or retain it until death, a key capital gains tax consideration is that:
Correct answer: B. On death there is no capital gains tax disposal and the beneficiaries inherit assets at market value, so gains accrued during the deceased's lifetime fall out of charge - whereas gifting during lifetime is a deemed disposal at market value that can crystallise a gain now. That is why lifetime giving (good for inheritance tax if the donor survives the statutory period) must be weighed against losing the death uplift. Lifetime gifts do not automatically escape both taxes, death does not trigger a capital gains charge, and the positions are clearly not identical. -
Claiming gift holdover relief on a lifetime transfer can be a poor choice where the donor is elderly because:
Correct answer: D. If the donor is likely to hold the asset until death, the death uplift would eliminate the accrued gain entirely; gifting with holdover instead passes a latent gain to the donee, who will be taxed on it on a later disposal. So holdover can convert a gain that would have vanished into one that is merely postponed. Age itself is not a condition of the relief, the relief affects base cost rather than the donee's tax rate, and held-over amounts remain capital gains, not income. -
In choosing how to relieve a trading loss, an unincorporated trader should primarily compare:
Correct answer: A. Loss relief planning weighs the rate of tax saved by each possible claim (setting the loss against income taxed at higher marginal rates saves more), the cash-flow benefit of earlier repayment, and the hidden cost of claims that swamp income which allowances would have covered anyway. The size of the loss is a given, not a decision factor between routes; there is no ordering rule based on names; and the choice belongs to the taxpayer, not the authority. -
Incorporation relief defers gains when an unincorporated business is transferred to a company wholly or partly in exchange for shares. A taxpayer might elect to disapply the relief because:
Correct answer: B. Incorporation relief rolls the gain into the share base cost, lowering it. If the gain arising on incorporation would anyway be sheltered by other reliefs or exemptions, or taxed at an acceptably low rate, electing out crystallises it cheaply and leaves the shares with a full market-value base cost - valuable if a sale of the company is planned. The relief defers rather than increases tax, disapplying it confers no future exemption, and issuing shares is precisely what brings the relief into play. -
Group relief for corporation tax allows:
Correct answer: C. Group relief lets one member of a qualifying group surrender eligible losses to a fellow member, which deducts them from its own taxable profits - the group is treated in this respect closer to a single economic unit. The companies must satisfy the group ownership definition, so it is not open between any two companies; losses cannot be sold to unrelated parties (anti-avoidance targets exactly that); and company losses never pass to individual shareholders or employees. -
If a company cannot use a trading loss in the current period, the general concept of carry-forward relief is that the loss:
Correct answer: D. Unused trading losses can generally be carried forward against future profits, though modern rules attach conditions - such as continuity of the trade, claims requirements, and restrictions limiting how much of a large profit can be sheltered in one period. The loss does not simply expire at once, tax authorities do not refund losses in cash on demand, and losses belong to the company rather than passing to shareholders. -
Within a capital gains group, chargeable assets can be transferred between member companies:
Correct answer: D. Intra-group transfers of chargeable assets within a capital gains group are automatically treated as made at no gain and no loss: the transferee inherits the base cost, and the accrued gain is deferred until the asset is sold outside the group (or a degrouping event occurs). The transfer is not taxed at market value at the time, dormancy is irrelevant, and there is no mechanism splitting the gain equally between members. -
A practical trap in group tax planning is that:
Correct answer: B. Loss-relief groups and capital gains groups use different ownership tests - the required shareholding levels and the way indirect holdings through sub-subsidiaries are measured are not the same - so a structure can qualify for one regime and fail the other, and advisers must check each definition separately. That is exactly why the first option is wrong; anti-avoidance rules pay close attention to group relationships rather than ignoring them; and full ownership is not required, since each regime sets its own threshold below that level. -
When allocating surrendered losses among group companies, the group should generally prioritise:
Correct answer: A. The aim is to maximise the tax saved: direct losses to companies whose profits face the highest effective marginal rate, and avoid claims that would displace deductions (such as charitable donations relief) that cannot be recovered later. Equal spreading ignores differing marginal positions and wastes value, alphabetical order is irrelevant, and surrendering losses to companies with no taxable profits saves nothing at all. -
Consortium relief differs from standard group relief in that:
Correct answer: C. Where a company is owned by a consortium of corporate shareholders, losses can flow between it and the members - but only in proportion to each member's interest, unlike full group relief where qualifying losses can be surrendered without such apportionment. The companies are connected through defined consortium ownership conditions, not unconnected; the regime is not limited to overseas companies; and ownership thresholds are central to it, not absent. -
Anti-avoidance rules that apply on a change in company ownership are aimed at:
Correct answer: A. Without restriction, a profitable group could buy a loss-making shell purely to use its accumulated losses. The rules therefore deny or restrict carried-forward losses where a change in ownership is accompanied by a major change in the nature or conduct of the trade, or where the trade had become negligible. They do not prevent company sales as such, they restrict rather than facilitate the transfer of losses, and they operate on the loss company's attributes rather than double-taxing the seller. -
A degrouping charge can arise when:
Correct answer: C. The no-gain, no-loss treatment of intra-group transfers is protected by the degrouping rules: if the transferee company leaves the group still holding the transferred asset within the defined period after the transfer, the deferred gain is brought back into charge - otherwise groups could shelter disposals by wrapping assets in a company and selling the company. Dividends to a parent, internal trade mergers and changes of accounting date do not in themselves trigger a degrouping charge. -
When a company with accumulated losses is acquired into a new group, the general policy behind restricting the use of its pre-acquisition losses is that:
Correct answer: B. The legislation aims to allow genuine commercial rescue and continuation while preventing trade in tax losses: relief stays linked to the activity that produced the losses, so an acquirer cannot simply buy losses to shelter unrelated profits, particularly where the trade changes fundamentally. Losses attach to the company rather than its former shareholders, they emphatically do not become freely available on acquisition, and no cash compensation mechanism exists for restricted losses. -
For an individual, the significance of being tax resident in a country is typically that:
Correct answer: D. Residence is the main connecting factor for personal taxation: residents are usually within the charge on their worldwide income and gains (subject to special regimes and treaty relief), while non-residents are typically taxed only on locally sourced income, such as earnings from duties performed there or local property income. Residence is central to income tax, not just social security; non-residents can clearly still be taxed on local-source income; and residents' liability extends well beyond investment income. -
Double tax relief by credit works on the principle that:
Correct answer: B. Under the credit method, the home country taxes the foreign income but allows the foreign tax already paid as a credit, limited to the home tax on that same income - so the taxpayer ends up bearing the higher of the two rates, not both. Taxpayers cannot elect to ignore a jurisdiction, neither country refunds everything, and exemption in both countries at once would be double non-taxation, which is what treaties try to prevent alongside double taxation. -
The UK statutory residence test is structured as:
Correct answer: A. The statutory residence test works in ordered stages: if an automatic overseas test is met the individual is non-resident; failing that, meeting an automatic UK test makes them resident; otherwise the sufficient ties test weighs connecting factors (family, accommodation, work and similar ties) against the amount of time spent in the UK. Citizenship is not the test, the outcome follows statutory rules rather than official discretion, and the employer's place of incorporation is not determinative. -
Whether an individual's overseas assets fall within the scope of UK inheritance tax depends primarily on:
Correct answer: D. Inheritance tax uses a personal connecting factor to decide whether worldwide assets are in scope: individuals with the requisite long-term connection to the UK are chargeable on worldwide assets, while others are chargeable only on assets situated in the UK - which remain in scope whoever owns them. Currency of denomination, whether an asset yields income, and the size of any particular asset affect valuation or planning but not the basic territorial scope. -
A company trading into a foreign country generally becomes taxable on its trading profits there only if it:
Correct answer: C. Under the permanent establishment concept found in domestic law and tax treaties, merely exporting to customers in a country does not create a local trading profits charge; taxation generally requires a taxable presence such as a fixed place of business or a dependent agent habitually concluding contracts there. Sales alone, invoicing currency, and incidental visits by employees do not by themselves create that taxable presence. -
Controlled foreign company (CFC) rules exist to:
Correct answer: A. CFC regimes are anti-avoidance: where a controlled foreign subsidiary in a low-tax territory earns profits that have been artificially diverted from the home country, those profits can be attributed to and taxed on the controlling company, subject to exemptions for genuine commercial situations. The rules do not prohibit overseas subsidiaries, they impose charges rather than grant refunds, and they are a tax charging mechanism, not a currency accounting standard. -
The arm's length principle in international taxation requires that:
Correct answer: B. The arm's length principle, which underpins transfer pricing rules and treaties, tests connected-party dealings against what independent enterprises would have agreed, and allows tax authorities to adjust profits where pricing diverges - supported by documentation and comparability analysis. Free intra-group services are exactly what the rules challenge, taxing all profits at the parent's listing location contradicts the principle's transaction-by-transaction approach, and customs valuation is a separate regime. -
When a company chooses between operating abroad through a branch or a subsidiary, a relevant tax consideration is that:
Correct answer: C. A branch is part of the same legal entity, so its profits and often its early losses flow into the home company's computation (subject to any election to exempt overseas branch results), whereas a subsidiary is taxed separately in its own country and the parent may receive its dividends exempt from further tax. Branch profits attract double tax relief rather than unrelieved double taxation, a subsidiary's profits are not automatically taxed on the parent as they arise (only in special anti-avoidance cases), and the form chosen has significant tax consequences. -
Where a company is treated as resident in two countries at once, double tax treaties typically resolve the conflict by:
Correct answer: D. Treaty tie-breakers resolve dual residence: older treaty practice points to the place of effective management, while newer practice often requires the competent authorities to settle residence by mutual agreement having regard to management, incorporation and other factors. Place of first registration is not a universal rule, economic size is irrelevant, and splitting profits equally is not how residence conflicts are resolved. -
The fundamental ethical principles that govern a professional accountant giving tax advice include:
Correct answer: C. The professional codes rest on the fundamental principles of integrity, objectivity, professional competence and due care, confidentiality, and professional behaviour, applied through a threats-and-safeguards framework. Profit maximisation and secrecy are not ethical principles (confidentiality is a duty of care over client information, not secrecy from lawful authority), speed and novelty are commercial virtues at best, and advocacy is a threat to be managed rather than a principle. -
A tax adviser's duty of confidentiality to a client:
Correct answer: A. Confidentiality is a fundamental principle but yields where the law requires or permits disclosure - anti-money laundering reporting being the leading example - or where the client consents. It is therefore not unconditional; it also survives the end of the engagement rather than lapsing with it, and it covers information in any form, spoken as much as written. -
A client refuses to correct a material error in an earlier tax return after the adviser has explained the consequences. The adviser should:
Correct answer: D. The adviser must urge disclosure; if the client refuses, continuing to act risks association with the irregularity, so the adviser should consider resigning, document the position, and evaluate whether the refusal gives rise to a reporting obligation under anti-money laundering law - without alerting the client that a report is being made. The adviser cannot amend a client's return unilaterally, going to the press would breach confidentiality, and carrying on regardless compromises integrity. -
If an adviser forms a suspicion that a client has deliberately evaded tax, the adviser is generally required to:
Correct answer: B. Deliberate tax evasion generates criminal property, so suspicion triggers the anti-money laundering reporting regime: the adviser reports internally to the firm's nominated officer or externally to the authority, and must not tip off the client because that could prejudice an investigation. Public confrontation and telling the bank are both inappropriate and risk tipping off, and there is no general exemption for small amounts. -
Where a firm is asked to advise both parties to the same transaction, the firm should first:
Correct answer: B. Acting for both sides creates a conflict between the duties owed to each. The code requires the firm to evaluate the threat: with disclosure, informed consent and safeguards such as separate teams and information barriers it may be manageable, but if objectivity or confidentiality cannot be protected the firm must decline or withdraw from one or both engagements. Blind acceptance ignores the threat, automatic resignation overshoots where safeguards would suffice, and pricing does not cure an ethical conflict. -
Professional guidance on giving tax planning advice requires, among other things, that:
Correct answer: D. Professional conduct standards for tax work require advice to be client-specific, grounded in a tenable view of the law and complete facts, and given with judgement about how planning sits against the law's intent - advisers must not create or promote arrangements that depend on non-detection or that are highly artificial. Promoting any scheme regardless of merit breaches those standards, significant advice should be documented, and no adviser can or should guarantee outcomes that depend on facts, courts and future law. -
When a tax adviser represents a client in a dispute with the tax authority, the main ethical threat to manage is:
Correct answer: A. Dispute work casts the adviser as the client's champion, which creates an advocacy threat: pressing the client's case can shade into asserting positions the adviser does not objectively believe are sustainable. Safeguards include independent internal review and declining to advance unarguable positions. Knowing the legislation well is competence, not a threat; self-review concerns reviewing one's own firm's work, not the authority's; and public intimidation is not the characteristic threat in dispute representation. -
Regimes that require promoters to disclose certain tax avoidance arrangements to the tax authority are designed to:
Correct answer: C. Disclosure regimes oblige promoters (and sometimes users) to notify arrangements exhibiting defined hallmarks, giving the authority early sight of avoidance activity so it can open enquiries, challenge schemes and close loopholes by legislation. Disclosure is emphatically not approval and gives users no protection from challenge, it does not validate the scheme, and the target is mass-marketed avoidance, not the ordinary taking of professional advice. -
Before accepting a new tax client, a professional firm should:
Correct answer: A. Acceptance procedures combine anti-money laundering due diligence (verifying identity and beneficial ownership), an assessment of the client's integrity and the engagement's risk, confirmation that the firm has the competence and resources, and professional courtesy contact with the outgoing adviser - made with the client's permission - to learn of any reason not to act. Starting work before these checks defeats their purpose, relying purely on self-assurances is no due diligence at all, and approaching the previous adviser behind the client's back breaches confidentiality and trust.
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Practice questions FAQ
- Are these real ACCA ATX exam questions?
- No. These are original study questions written to test understanding of the syllabus. They are not real exam questions, exam dumps, or copied from any provider.
- How should I use these ATX practice questions?
- Answer each one, read the explanation (including why the wrong options are wrong), and use the per-area score below to focus your revision. Revisit before exam day.
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- Treat it as a concept check, not a full mock. Pair it with past papers and specimen exams from ACCA and approved content providers - the real paper also tests longer, applied question styles.
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- A good signal is consistently scoring around 80% or higher across every syllabus area on questions you have not seen before, and being able to explain why the wrong options are wrong.
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- No. Dumps (real or leaked questions) breach provider policy, can void your qualification, and do not build the understanding the exam actually tests.