Practice questions · Salesforce & CRM
Salesforce Certified Administrator: Practice Questions
Original practice questions for the Salesforce Certified Administrator exam. Each answer is explained, including why each other option is wrong. Filter by domain or difficulty. These are concept checks - not questions from the certification.
Answered 0 · Correct 0
-
A user needs the same baseline access as the rest of the sales team, plus the extra ability to export reports. What is the cleanest way to grant just that extra ability?
Correct answer: B. A permission set grants extra capabilities on top of a profile without changing the user's baseline, which is exactly this situation. Cloning the profile for one user creates profile sprawl that is hard to maintain; the System Administrator profile grants far more than needed and is a security risk; and a role affects record-level sharing, not the export-reports permission. -
An organisation-wide default (OWD) for an object is set to Private. What does this mean before any other sharing is applied?
Correct answer: D. A Private OWD means users start with access only to records they own; access is then opened up selectively with the role hierarchy and sharing rules. It does not let everyone edit every record (that is Public Read/Write), it does not hide the object entirely (object access comes from profiles and permission sets), and it is not read-only for everyone (that is Public Read Only). -
Which Salesforce feature opens record access upward, so a manager can see the records owned by people who report to them?
Correct answer: A. The role hierarchy grants users access to records owned by those below them, so managers see their team's records. A validation rule enforces data quality on save; a page layout controls which fields and buttons appear; and a permission set grants object or system permissions, not upward record sharing. -
You need to grant a group of users access to records they do not own and that the role hierarchy does not reach. Which tool is designed for this?
Correct answer: C. A sharing rule opens records sideways to defined groups beyond what OWD and the role hierarchy provide. Organisation-wide defaults set the restrictive baseline, not exceptions to it; a profile controls object and field access, not record-level sharing to a group; and a record type changes picklists and process, not who can see a record. -
What is the relationship between a profile and a permission set in Salesforce?
Correct answer: D. A profile gives a user their baseline access and a permission set layers additional permissions on top, which is why modern practice favours permission sets over cloning profiles. They are not the same thing; a permission set adds to a profile rather than replacing it; and the assignment claim is backwards - each user has one profile but can hold many permission sets. -
A user reports they cannot log in from a new location. As an administrator, which setting most likely controls this?
Correct answer: B. Login IP ranges and login hours, set on the profile, govern when and from where a user may sign in, so a restricted range blocks a new location. A report type defines what a report can query; cross-filter direction affects how filters flow in the data model; and an OWD controls record visibility, not login access. -
What does field-level security control?
Correct answer: C. Field-level security determines whether a given field is visible or editable for a user, independent of record access. It has nothing to do with refresh schedules, it does not assign record ownership, and it does not order flow steps - those are unrelated data, sharing and automation concerns. -
You want the same object to show different picklist values and follow a different business process for two teams. Which feature do you use?
Correct answer: A. Record types let one object present different picklist values and business processes to different groups of users. A sharing rule controls record visibility, not picklists or process; a dashboard visualises data; and a permission set grants permissions - none of them vary an object's picklists or process by team. -
An administrator needs to change which fields, related lists and buttons appear on a record screen, without changing data access. Which tool does this?
Correct answer: C. Page layouts, and Lightning record pages, control which fields, related lists and buttons a user sees on a record. A validation rule blocks bad saves; organisation-wide defaults set record visibility, not screen layout; and a duplicate rule detects duplicates - none of them arrange the record screen. -
Which type of relationship field makes a child record's existence depend on its parent, so deleting the parent deletes the children?
Correct answer: D. A master-detail relationship tightly couples child to parent, so deleting the parent cascades to the children and the child inherits sharing. A lookup relationship is looser and does not cascade-delete by default; a formula field calculates a value, it is not a relationship; and roll-up summaries require master-detail, not lookup, so that option is invalid. -
What is the Lightning App Builder used for?
Correct answer: B. The Lightning App Builder is the declarative, drag-and-drop tool for assembling app pages and record pages from components. Writing Apex triggers is developer work in code, not the App Builder; importing CSV data is done with the Data Import Wizard or Data Loader; and assigning permission sets happens in user setup. -
An administrator wants a field whose value is automatically calculated from other fields on the same record and is read-only. Which field type fits?
Correct answer: A. A formula field derives a read-only value from other fields on the record and recalculates automatically. A picklist offers a set of selectable values, not a calculation; a lookup field links to another record; and a plain currency field is entered by users rather than calculated - none of them auto-derive a read-only value. -
In the standard sales process, converting a qualified lead creates which records?
Correct answer: D. Lead conversion turns a lead into an account, a contact and, optionally, an opportunity, moving it into the active sales pipeline. A case and solution belong to service, not lead conversion; reports and dashboards are analytics artefacts; and queues and escalation rules are service-routing tools - none are created by converting a lead. -
What does an opportunity's Stage field primarily represent?
Correct answer: B. The Stage field tracks how far a potential sale has progressed through the sales process, and it drives forecasting. It is unrelated to a user's profile (a permissions setting), to dashboard refresh (an analytics schedule), or to OWD (a record-visibility baseline). -
An administrator needs to control the standard prices of products that can be added to opportunities. Which feature stores these prices?
Correct answer: C. A price book holds the products and their prices that can be added to opportunities, including the standard price book. A validation rule enforces data quality; a sharing rule controls record access; and a permission set grants permissions - none of them store product pricing. -
A support team wants new cases to be held centrally until an agent picks one up, rather than being assigned to one person immediately. Which feature supports this?
Correct answer: A. A queue holds records like cases so any member of the team can take ownership when ready, which fits a shared support inbox. A formula field calculates a value; a bookmark is not a case-routing feature in this context; and a price book stores product prices - none of them hold cases for a team to pick up. -
Which tool automatically moves a case to a higher tier if it is not resolved within a set time?
Correct answer: D. An escalation rule raises a case (for example reassigning or notifying) when time-based conditions are met, ensuring SLAs are kept. A duplicate rule detects duplicate records; a page layout arranges the record screen; and field-level security controls field visibility - none of them escalate a case on a timer. -
An administrator wants incoming cases routed to the right agent based on criteria such as product or region. Which tool does this?
Correct answer: B. A case assignment rule evaluates criteria and routes each new case to the right user or queue automatically. A roll-up summary aggregates child records; a dashboard filter changes what a dashboard shows; and the role hierarchy governs record sharing - none of them route cases by criteria. -
Which feature lets users across the company post updates, ask questions and collaborate on records inside Salesforce?
Correct answer: C. Chatter is the in-platform collaboration feed where users post, comment and follow records and people. Data Loader is a bulk data tool; a validation rule enforces data quality on save; and a sharing rule controls record access - none of them provide a collaboration feed. -
A sales rep wants to log a phone call and schedule a follow-up meeting against a contact. Which Salesforce records do they use?
Correct answer: A. Activities cover tasks and events: a task records the logged call and an event schedules the meeting, both tied to the contact. Profiles are permission settings, not activity logs; a report type and dashboard are analytics tools; and organisation-wide defaults set record visibility - none of them log calls or schedule meetings. -
You need to load 200,000 records into a custom object, more than the Data Import Wizard supports. Which tool is appropriate?
Correct answer: D. Data Loader handles large volumes and all objects, making it the right choice beyond the Data Import Wizard's limits. A screen flow guides a user through input but is not a bulk import tool; a validation rule blocks bad saves; and a dashboard visualises data - none of them bulk-load large datasets. -
An administrator wants to import a few thousand accounts and contacts from a spreadsheet, with built-in matching to avoid duplicates. Which tool is the simplest fit?
Correct answer: B. The Data Import Wizard handles standard objects like accounts and contacts up to a row limit and offers matching to prevent duplicates, which suits this job. Apex code is developer work and overkill here; a roll-up summary aggregates child records; and a permission set grants permissions - none of them import spreadsheet data with matching. -
What determines which objects and fields are available to include when you build a report?
Correct answer: C. The report type defines the objects and their relationships, and therefore the fields, a report can use. A dashboard theme is cosmetic; login hours govern when a user can sign in; and an OWD sets record visibility, not which fields a report can pull - none of them define a report's available fields. -
An administrator wants to stop duplicate accounts from being created when a user enters one that already exists. Which feature does this?
Correct answer: A. Duplicate rules, backed by matching rules, detect potential duplicates and can warn or block on save, keeping data clean. A bookmark saves a view; a page layout arranges fields on screen; and the role hierarchy controls record sharing - none of them detect or prevent duplicate records. -
A manager wants a single screen of charts summarising several reports, refreshed for the whole team. What should the administrator build?
Correct answer: D. A dashboard presents charts and components built from one or more reports on a single screen, ideal for a team summary. A validation rule enforces data quality; a permission set group bundles permissions; and a record type varies picklists and process - none of them visualise reports on one screen. -
An administrator needs to automate a process that runs whenever an opportunity is updated, without writing code. Which tool should they use today?
Correct answer: B. A record-triggered flow in Flow Builder is the current declarative way to run automation when a record changes. Workflow Rules are being retired, so they are not the recommended tool; Apex triggers are code and not the only option for declarative needs; and a sharing rule controls access, not automation on update. -
An administrator must prevent a record from being saved when the Close Date is in the past. Which tool is the right fit?
Correct answer: C. A validation rule checks a condition on save and blocks the record with an error when the data is invalid, exactly matching this requirement. A dashboard visualises data; a permission set grants permissions; and a sharing rule controls record access - none of them stop a save based on field values. -
Why is learning Flow more important than Workflow Rules and Process Builder for the current Administrator exam?
Correct answer: A. Salesforce is consolidating declarative automation into Flow and retiring Workflow Rules and Process Builder, so Flow is what the exam centres on. Workflow Rules are declarative, not Apex-only; Process Builder is older than Flow, not the newest; and Flow does far more than send emails, handling records, screens and scheduled logic. -
From an administrator's point of view, what is Agentforce in Salesforce?
Correct answer: D. Agentforce is Salesforce's AI agent layer, and administrators configure and govern how it assists users and what data it can reach. Stacking CSV rows is a data-import concern; a report type defines reportable fields; and organisation-wide defaults set record visibility - none of them describe Salesforce's AI agent capability. -
When enabling AI features such as Einstein or Agentforce, what is a key responsibility for the administrator?
Correct answer: A. Administrators govern AI by controlling data access and configuring trust and guardrails, so AI assists safely within the org's policies. They do not build the underlying model themselves (Salesforce provides it); disabling all reports is unrelated and harmful; and the fiscal year is an unrelated company setting - neither is required to enable AI safely.
Practice questions FAQ
- Are these real Salesforce Admin exam questions?
- No. These are original study questions written to test understanding. They are not real exam questions, exam dumps, or copied from any provider.
- How should I use these practice questions?
- Answer each one, read the explanation (including why the wrong options are wrong), and use the per-domain score below to focus your revision on weak areas. Revisit before exam day.
- How many questions should I do before the exam?
- Enough to score consistently across every domain, alongside full-length practice from official or reputable providers. Understanding why each answer is right matters more than raw volume.
- What score means I am ready?
- A good signal is consistently scoring around 80% or higher across all domains on questions you have not seen before, and being able to explain why the wrong options are wrong.
- Should I use exam dumps?
- No. Dumps (real or leaked questions) breach provider policy, can void your certification, and do not build the understanding the exam actually tests.