Practice questions · Graduate & Business School Admissions
GRE General Test: Practice Questions
Original practice questions for the GRE General Test: about 40% cover the test's format, scoring and strategy, and about 60% are original sample items modelled on the Quantitative, Verbal and Analytical Writing question types. These are written for practice and are not real or retired GRE questions. Choose an answer to reveal the explanation.
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How long is the current shorter GRE General Test?
Correct answer: A. Since September 2023 the shorter GRE runs about 1 hour 58 minutes. The roughly 3-hour-45-minute and 4-hour figures describe the older, longer GRE before the unscored section and break were removed; a flat 2 hours 30 minutes is not an official GRE length. -
How many measures does the GRE General Test contain?
Correct answer: C. The GRE has three measures - Verbal Reasoning, Quantitative Reasoning and Analytical Writing. Leaving out Analytical Writing gives only two; there is no separate Logic measure; and although the test has five sections, several belong to the same measure, so five measures is wrong. -
On the shorter GRE, how many essays are in the Analytical Writing measure?
Correct answer: B. The shorter GRE has a single Analyze an Issue essay. The two-essay format (which also included Analyze an Argument) was the older version; there is no three-essay format; and writing was not removed, only reduced to one task. -
What is the score scale for GRE Verbal Reasoning and Quantitative Reasoning?
Correct answer: D. Each of Verbal and Quantitative is scored 130-170 in one-point steps. The 200-800 scale belongs to other tests, not the modern GRE measures; 0-6 in half-points is the Analytical Writing scale; and the GRE is not reported as a raw percentage. -
How is the GRE Analytical Writing essay scored?
Correct answer: B. Analytical Writing uses a 0-6 scale in half-point increments. The 130-170 scale is for Verbal and Quantitative; the essay is not pass/fail; and a 1-9 band belongs to a different writing test, not the GRE. -
What does it mean that the GRE Verbal and Quantitative measures are section-level adaptive?
Correct answer: D. GRE adaptation works at the section level: the first Verbal or Quantitative section determines how hard the second one is. It is not question-by-question adaptive like some other tests; the essay topic does not adapt to your field; and adaptation changes question difficulty, not the time allowed. -
Why should you not treat the first Verbal or Quantitative section as a warm-up?
Correct answer: A. The first section counts toward your score and, through section-level adaptation, gates how high the second section can take you. It is not unscored practice; its difficulty is fixed in advance rather than guaranteed easy; and it has nothing to do with the essay score. -
How long are GRE scores reportable to programmes?
Correct answer: C. GRE scores can be sent to programmes for five years after the test date. One year and two years are too short, and scores do not remain reportable indefinitely. -
What is the approximate fee for the GRE General Test in most locations?
Correct answer: C. In most locations the GRE costs about US $220, varying by region. Around $100 is the reduced fee for those who qualify on financial need, not the standard price; $500 overstates it; and the test is not free. -
Which calculator may you use during the GRE Quantitative sections?
Correct answer: A. The GRE provides a basic on-screen calculator for the Quantitative sections. You cannot bring your own handheld or graphing calculator, and it is incorrect that no calculator is available. -
Which describes the GRE Verbal Reasoning question types?
Correct answer: D. Verbal Reasoning uses Reading Comprehension, Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence. The GRE Verbal section is not built from essays or debates, does not test isolated grammar or spelling, and has no listening or speaking component. -
Roughly what share of the Verbal measure is based on reading passages?
Correct answer: B. About half of Verbal Reasoning is reading passages, with the other half being Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence. A tenth understates it, nearly all overstates it, and passages remain a core part of the measure. -
Which four content areas does GRE Quantitative Reasoning cover?
Correct answer: D. GRE Quant covers arithmetic, algebra, geometry and data analysis, all at high-school level. It does not test calculus, trigonometry or formal proofs; it is not an accounting or finance exam; and it does not require advanced set theory. -
Which section always comes first on the GRE?
Correct answer: B. Analytical Writing is always first, after which the Verbal and Quantitative sections appear in some order. Neither Quant nor Verbal is guaranteed to open the test, and the shorter GRE has no unscored research section at all. -
How are GRE scores reported to help compare you with other test takers?
Correct answer: C. Every GRE score comes with a percentile rank showing the share of test takers you scored above. The GRE is not pass/fail; raw counts are converted to scaled scores rather than reported directly; and there is no single combined score out of 100. -
Why is a given Quantitative scaled score usually a lower percentile than the same Verbal score?
Correct answer: A. Because many GRE test takers are quantitatively strong, the same scaled score lands at a lower percentile on Quant than on Verbal. Question scoring is not weighted differently by measure, both scales run to 170, and both measures are reported with percentiles rather than one being curved and the other not. -
Within a single GRE section, what can you do with the questions?
Correct answer: A. Within a section the GRE lets you move freely, flag questions, return to them and change answers until time expires. You are not locked into strict order, you can revisit and revise answers, and review is not restricted to the final minute. -
What is the best first move on a Text Completion question?
Correct answer: C. Predicting the blank from the sentence's own logic, then matching an option to your prediction, is the reliable method. Reading options first invites being talked into a trap, choosing by sophistication ignores meaning, and tone depends on the sentence rather than defaulting to negative. -
On Sentence Equivalence, what makes a correct pair of answers?
Correct answer: B. A correct Sentence Equivalence pair are near-synonyms that both make the sentence work and yield the same meaning. Difficulty is irrelevant; two words that each fit but mean different things give different sentences and are wrong; and opposite meanings cannot produce equivalent sentences. -
For GRE Reading Comprehension, what must the correct answer be based on?
Correct answer: D. Reading Comprehension answers must be supported by the passage, not by what you already know. The most detailed or most dramatic option is often a trap, and outside knowledge can lead you to a choice the text does not actually support. -
Why test several cases on a Quantitative Comparison with a variable?
Correct answer: B. Trying several values, including zero, fractions and negatives, can flip which quantity is larger and show the relationship is not fixed. The point is logical coverage of cases, not a calculator limitation, and there is no rule restricting the values to negatives. -
When is 'the relationship cannot be determined' never the answer on a Quantitative Comparison?
Correct answer: D. If both quantities are fully determined numbers, one of them is definitively larger or they are equal, so 'cannot be determined' is impossible. A variable does not force that answer, and neither large numbers nor fractions by themselves make a relationship indeterminate. -
What does GRE Analytical Writing scoring reward most?
Correct answer: A. The scoring guide rewards a clear, well-supported position with developed reasoning and concrete examples. Length and fancy vocabulary are not the measure, and the Analyze an Issue task expects you to take and defend a position rather than stay neutral. -
Who scores the GRE Analytical Writing essay?
Correct answer: C. The essay is scored by a trained human rater alongside ETS's e-rater engine, and a second human is brought in if they disagree. It is not purely automated, it does not use a five-reader panel for every essay, and the school's admissions office does not score it. -
How many score reports are typically included free when you take the GRE?
Correct answer: C. Test takers can send four score reports for free at the test. Zero and one understate the included reports, and ten overstates them. -
What is the smartest use of the on-screen GRE calculator?
Correct answer: A. The calculator is a backup for tedious arithmetic; using it for everything wastes time on easy questions. It is allowed (not forbidden) but only on the Quantitative sections, so 'never' and 'on Verbal' are both wrong. -
A common reason capable writers underscore on Analytical Writing is:
Correct answer: D. Underdeveloped support - claims without specific reasons and examples - is a frequent score-limiter. Formality is not penalised, more concrete examples help rather than hurt, and stating a clear position early is exactly what the task wants. -
What is the best way to learn vocabulary for GRE Verbal?
Correct answer: B. Vocabulary in context, including connotation and typical usage, matches what Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence test. Bare definitions miss nuance, chasing only rare words ignores common testable ones, and spelling is not what the GRE assesses. -
Before answering a GRE Quantitative question, what is a useful final check?
Correct answer: D. Many Quant misses are correct maths answering the wrong question, so rereading the prompt before committing catches that. Picking the largest or roundest option is not a sound rule, and an extra calculator pass does not fix a misread of what was asked. -
What is the value of taking a full-length official practice test before studying?
Correct answer: B. A diagnostic full-length test sets a realistic baseline and reveals your weaker measure so you can aim your hours. It does not guarantee a future score, it informs studying rather than replacing it, and a diagnostic is most useful early, not only at the end. -
Which best describes who the GRE is designed for?
Correct answer: C. The GRE is accepted across most graduate fields and many MBA programmes, which is its main appeal. It is not limited to science PhDs or to MBA applicants, and it is a graduate-level admissions test, not an undergraduate one. -
How should you divide study time between Verbal and Quantitative?
Correct answer: A. Putting more hours into your weaker measure, as shown by a diagnostic, raises your score most efficiently. An exact even split ignores your actual gaps, and spending everything on one measure neglects the other. -
Is there an unscored experimental or research section on the shorter GRE?
Correct answer: A. The shorter GRE no longer includes an unscored research section, unlike the older format. There is not one or two unscored sections in the current test, and the essay is scored, not unscored. -
Does the shorter GRE include a scheduled break?
Correct answer: C. The shorter GRE has no scheduled break, so you plan to sustain focus throughout. The older, longer test had a break, but the current version does not include a mid-test break of any length. -
Where can the GRE General Test be taken?
Correct answer: B. The computer-delivered GRE can be taken at a Prometric test centre or at home with remote proctoring. It is not limited to a campus, it is not a mail-in paper test in this context, and it is not taken only at an ETS office. -
What is the best reason to take the GRE well before your application deadlines?
Correct answer: D. Because GRE scores last five years, testing early keeps your options open and leaves room to retake. The fee does not drop for testing early, there is no percentile bonus, and question difficulty does not depend on how early you test. -
What is a sound way to set a GRE target score?
Correct answer: B. Targets should come from the ranges your specific programmes report, weighted toward the measure your field cares about. Chasing a perfect score everywhere ignores your needs, an arbitrary round number is not evidence-based, and merely matching the average may fall short of competitive programmes. -
What does 'score choice' let GRE test takers do?
Correct answer: D. Score choice lets you select which test dates' scores a programme sees. It does not allow editing answers after the test, scores cannot be transferred between measures, and the GRE is retaken as a whole rather than one section at a time. -
What is 15% of 80?
Correct answer: A. 15% of 80 is 0.15 x 80 = 12. The value 8 would be 10% of 80, 15 confuses the percentage with the result, and 20 is 25% of 80. -
What is the average (arithmetic mean) of 4, 8, 10 and 14?
Correct answer: C. The mean is (4 + 8 + 10 + 14) / 4 = 36 / 4 = 9. The other values come from dividing incorrectly or guessing near the middle of the list rather than computing the true average. -
If 3x + 7 = 22, what is x?
Correct answer: C. Subtract 7 to get 3x = 15, then divide by 3 to get x = 5. The value 15 is 3x before dividing, and 3 and 7 are taken straight from the equation without solving. -
What is the value of 2 raised to the 5th power?
Correct answer: A. 2^5 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 32. The value 10 confuses 2 x 5 with the power, 16 is 2^4, and 25 is 5^2. -
A price of 60 is increased by 25%. What is the new price?
Correct answer: D. A 25% increase adds 0.25 x 60 = 15, giving 60 + 15 = 75. The other values overstate or miscalculate the increase. -
Two quantities are in the ratio 3 to 5 and add up to 64. What is the larger quantity?
Correct answer: B. The parts total 3 + 5 = 8, so each part is 64 / 8 = 8; the larger quantity is 5 x 8 = 40. The value 24 is the smaller quantity, 32 is half of 64, and 45 does not fit the ratio. -
What is the square root of 144?
Correct answer: D. 12 x 12 = 144, so the square root is 12. The value 72 is half of 144, 24 is double the correct root, and 14 squared is 196. -
What is 7! divided by 5! (where ! denotes factorial)?
Correct answer: B. 7! / 5! = 7 x 6 = 42, since the 5! cancels. The value 2 comes from subtracting the numbers, 12 from adding 7 and 5, and 35 from multiplying 7 by 5. -
What is the median of the numbers 3, 9, 4, 15 and 7?
Correct answer: C. Sorted, the numbers are 3, 4, 7, 9, 15, and the middle value is 7. The value 9 ignores sorting, while 4 and 15 are not the centre of the ordered list. -
On one roll of a fair six-sided die, what is the probability of an even number?
Correct answer: A. Three of the six faces (2, 4, 6) are even, so the probability is 3/6 = 1/2. The value 1/6 is the chance of a single specific face, 1/3 counts only two outcomes, and 2/3 overcounts. -
20 is what percent of 50?
Correct answer: A. 20 / 50 = 0.4, which is 40%. The value 20% confuses the number with its percentage, while 30% and 60% do not match the ratio. -
What is the area of a triangle with base 10 and height 6?
Correct answer: C. Area = (1/2) x base x height = (1/2) x 10 x 6 = 30. The value 60 omits the one-half factor, 16 adds the base and height, and 48 is unrelated. -
A circle has radius 5. What is its area, in terms of pi (as a multiple of pi)?
Correct answer: B. Area = pi x r^2 = pi x 5^2 = 25 pi, so the multiple of pi is 25. The value 10 uses the diameter instead of squaring, 5 uses the radius directly, and 50 doubles the correct result. -
What is 3/4 + 1/8?
Correct answer: D. Writing 3/4 as 6/8 gives 6/8 + 1/8 = 7/8. The value 4/12 wrongly adds numerators and denominators, while 1/2 and 5/8 are too small. -
What is the slope of the line through the points (1, 2) and (3, 8)?
Correct answer: B. Slope = (8 - 2) / (3 - 1) = 6 / 2 = 3. The value 1/3 inverts the fraction, while 2 and 4 use the wrong differences. -
How many real solutions does the equation x squared = 49 have?
Correct answer: D. Both 7 and -7 square to 49, so there are two real solutions. Taking only the positive root misses x = -7; the equation does have solutions, so zero is wrong; and a quadratic like this has at most two, not four. -
12 is 30% of what number?
Correct answer: A. If 0.30 x n = 12, then n = 12 / 0.30 = 40. The value 360 multiplies instead of dividing, and 36 and 42 do not satisfy the equation. -
What is the sum of the five consecutive integers from 8 to 12 inclusive?
Correct answer: C. 8 + 9 + 10 + 11 + 12 = 50. The other totals come from miscounting the terms or leaving one out. -
A price of 200 is reduced by 10% and then the reduced price is increased by 10%. What is the final price?
Correct answer: C. 200 reduced by 10% is 180; increasing 180 by 10% adds 18 to give 198. It does not return to 200 because the second percentage applies to the smaller amount; 202 and 180 are miscalculations. -
Travelling at 60 miles per hour for 2.5 hours covers what distance?
Correct answer: A. Distance = rate x time = 60 x 2.5 = 150 miles. The value 120 uses 2 hours, 180 uses 3 hours, and 125 does not match the rate and time given. -
What is the arithmetic mean of the set {2, 2, 2, 6}?
Correct answer: D. The sum is 2 + 2 + 2 + 6 = 12, and 12 / 4 = 3. The value 2 is the mode rather than the mean, 6 is the largest element, and 4 is the midpoint of 2 and 6 but not the average of all four numbers. -
How many values of x satisfy the equation absolute value of x equals 5?
Correct answer: B. The absolute value equals 5 for both x = 5 and x = -5, giving two solutions. Taking only the positive value misses -5; the equation does have solutions; and it is not satisfied by infinitely many numbers. -
What is 40% of 40% of 100?
Correct answer: D. 40% of 100 is 40, and 40% of 40 is 16. The value 40 stops after one step, 80 doubles incorrectly, and 8 halves the correct answer. -
On one roll of a fair six-sided die, what is the probability of rolling a number greater than 4?
Correct answer: B. Only 5 and 6 are greater than 4, so the probability is 2/6 = 1/3. The value 1/6 counts one outcome, 1/2 counts three, and 2/3 overcounts the favourable faces. -
What is the value of 9 squared minus 1?
Correct answer: C. 9 squared is 81, and 81 - 1 = 80. The value 81 forgets to subtract 1, 17 computes 9 x 2 - 1, and 64 is 8 squared. -
If 3 identical apples cost 1.20 in total, what is the cost of one apple?
Correct answer: A. 1.20 / 3 = 0.40 per apple. The value 1.20 is the cost of all three, 0.60 is the cost of half of them, and 0.30 does not divide evenly into the total. -
What is one-half of one-third?
Correct answer: A. Multiplying 1/2 x 1/3 gives 1/6. Adding the fractions would give 5/6, not these options; 1/5 wrongly adds denominators, and 1/2 and 2/3 ignore the multiplication. -
What is the simple interest on 1,000 at 5% per year for 2 years?
Correct answer: C. Simple interest = principal x rate x time = 1000 x 0.05 x 2 = 100. The value 50 uses one year, 200 uses four years, and 150 does not match the figures. -
In how many distinct orders can 4 different books be arranged on a shelf?
Correct answer: B. The number of arrangements is 4! = 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 24. The value 16 is 4 squared, 8 is 4 x 2, and 12 is 4 x 3, none of which counts all the orderings. -
What is 0.2 multiplied by 0.3?
Correct answer: D. 0.2 x 0.3 = 0.06, since 2 x 3 = 6 and the result has two decimal places after the first. The value 0.6 misplaces the decimal, 0.5 adds the numbers, and 0.006 has one decimal place too many. -
A bag holds 4 red and 6 blue marbles. What fraction of the marbles are red?
Correct answer: B. There are 4 red out of 10 total, and 4/10 simplifies to 2/5. The value 4/6 compares red to blue rather than to the total, 3/5 is the blue fraction, and 1/4 does not match the counts. -
If a square has an area of 36, what is the length of one side?
Correct answer: D. A square's side is the square root of its area, and the square root of 36 is 6. The value 9 is a quarter of the area, 18 is half of it, and 4 squared is 16, not 36. -
Which word means 'briefly and clearly expressed, using few words'?
Correct answer: A. Concise means saying much in few words. Verbose means using too many words, the opposite; ambiguous means open to more than one meaning; and tedious means tiresomely long or dull. -
Which word is the closest in meaning to 'praise highly'?
Correct answer: C. To laud is to praise highly. Censure means to criticise harshly, the opposite; ignore means to give no attention; and question means to express doubt, none of which conveys praise. -
A word meaning 'lasting for a very short time' is:
Correct answer: C. Ephemeral describes something that lasts only briefly. Perpetual means everlasting, the opposite; robust means strong and healthy; and ample means plentiful, neither of which is about brief duration. -
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'reduce the intensity or severity of something':
Correct answer: A. To mitigate is to make less severe. Aggravate means to make worse, the opposite; endorse means to support publicly; and fabricate means to invent or make up, neither of which lessens severity. -
In the sentence 'Although the report was thorough, its conclusions were ___,' which word best fits the contrast set up by 'although'?
Correct answer: D. The word 'although' signals a contrast, so a thorough report needs conclusions described in a less positive way, and 'questionable' provides that contrast. Comprehensive, detailed and exhaustive all reinforce thoroughness rather than opposing it, so they break the contrast. -
A word meaning 'showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise' is:
Correct answer: B. Meticulous means extremely careful and precise. Careless and hasty describe the opposite, and indifferent means lacking concern, none of which conveys precise attention to detail. -
Which word means 'a person who is hostile to or opposes something'?
Correct answer: D. An antagonist opposes or is hostile to someone or something. An advocate supports a cause, a mentor guides and advises, and a benefactor gives help or money, none of which implies opposition. -
Choose the word that best completes: 'The scientist remained ___, refusing to accept the claim without solid evidence.'
Correct answer: B. Refusing to accept a claim without evidence describes someone skeptical. Credulous means too ready to believe, the opposite; indifferent means uninterested; and reckless means careless of risk, neither of which fits demanding evidence. -
A word meaning 'plain, simple and not elaborate or luxurious' is:
Correct answer: C. Austere describes something plain and unadorned. Opulent, ornate and lavish all describe richness or elaborate decoration, which is the opposite of plain and simple. -
Which word is closest in meaning to 'widespread; existing everywhere'?
Correct answer: A. Ubiquitous means present everywhere. Scarce and rare mean hard to find, and localized means confined to one area, all of which contradict being everywhere. -
Choose the pair of words that would both complete the sentence with the same meaning: 'Her ___ remarks lightened the mood of the tense meeting.' (Select the two that fit.)
Correct answer: A. Because Sentence Equivalence needs two near-synonyms that keep one meaning, 'witty' and 'humorous' both fit a mood-lightening remark and mean nearly the same. Pairing witty with somber clashes in meaning, caustic and biting would sharpen rather than lighten the mood, and lengthy and verbose describe length, not humour. -
In 'The evidence was ___; it neither proved nor disproved the theory,' the blank is best filled by:
Correct answer: C. Evidence that neither proves nor disproves is inconclusive. Decisive, definitive and conclusive all mean settling the matter, which contradicts the sentence's own explanation. -
A word meaning 'to make something less serious by offering excuses' is closest to:
Correct answer: B. To extenuate is to lessen the apparent seriousness of something, often by partial excuse. Exaggerate overstates, condemn expresses strong disapproval, and highlight draws attention to, none of which softens a fault. -
Which word means 'generous in giving; abundant'?
Correct answer: D. Bountiful means plentiful or generously abundant. Meager and sparse mean scant, and stingy means unwilling to give, all opposite to abundant generosity. -
Choose the word that best fits: 'Despite his ___ tone, the manager's actual policies were quite harsh.'
Correct answer: B. The contrast with harsh policies calls for a soothing tone, which 'conciliatory' supplies. Aggressive, hostile and combative all match harshness rather than contrasting with it, so they miss the 'despite' signal. -
A passage states a policy 'produced mixed results, improving access but raising costs.' Which inference is best supported?
Correct answer: D. Improving access while raising costs is, by definition, a benefit and a drawback, which the text directly supports. Calling it a complete success or a total failure overreaches what 'mixed results' allows, and saying it had no effect contradicts the stated changes. -
Which word means 'unwilling to change one's opinion; stubborn'?
Correct answer: A. Obstinate means stubbornly refusing to change. Flexible, amenable and compliant all describe willingness to adapt or agree, the opposite of stubborn. -
In context, 'The critic's review was scathing' most nearly means the review was:
Correct answer: C. Scathing means severely and harshly critical. A mildly favorable, balanced, or enthusiastic review would be far milder or positive, which contradicts 'scathing'. -
A word meaning 'to formally give up a position, right or claim' is:
Correct answer: C. To relinquish is to give something up. Acquire means to gain, retain means to keep, and reinforce means to strengthen, all opposite to giving up. -
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'a tendency or inclination, especially a habitual one':
Correct answer: A. A propensity is a natural or habitual inclination toward something. Aversion and reluctance describe being disinclined, and an obstacle is a barrier, none of which is an inclination.
Practice questions FAQ
- Are these real GRE exam questions?
- No. These are original study questions written to test understanding. They are not real exam questions, exam dumps, or copied from any provider.
- How should I use these practice questions?
- Answer each one, read the explanation (including why the wrong options are wrong), and use the per-domain score below to focus your revision on weak areas. Revisit before exam day.
- How many questions should I do before the exam?
- Enough to score consistently across every domain, alongside full-length practice from official or reputable providers. Understanding why each answer is right matters more than raw volume.
- What score means I am ready?
- A good signal is consistently scoring around 80% or higher across all domains on questions you have not seen before, and being able to explain why the wrong options are wrong.
- Should I use exam dumps?
- No. Dumps (real or leaked questions) breach provider policy, can void your certification, and do not build the understanding the exam actually tests.