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Microsoft Azure Fundamentals (AZ-900): Practice Questions
Original practice questions for Microsoft Azure Fundamentals (AZ-900). Each answer is explained, including why the others are wrong. Filter by domain or difficulty. These are concept checks - not real exam questions.
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In IaaS, who is responsible for patching the guest operating system?
Correct answer: D. In IaaS the customer manages the OS and above; the provider manages the physical infrastructure. In PaaS/SaaS the provider takes on more, but not in IaaS. -
Which describes the difference between PaaS and SaaS?
Correct answer: C. PaaS provides a managed platform for your apps; SaaS is finished software you just use. They are not identical, and SaaS users do not manage servers. -
Moving from buying servers to paying for cloud usage shifts spending from:
Correct answer: C. Cloud converts large up-front capital expenditure (CapEx, e.g. buying servers) into ongoing operating expense (OpEx, paying for usage). 'OpEx to CapEx' is the reverse; 'fixed to free' and 'free to paid' are not what the shift describes, since cloud usage is still paid. -
High availability in the cloud is achieved mainly through:
Correct answer: B. High availability comes from redundancy (e.g. across Availability Zones) so a failed component does not take the service down. A single large server is itself a single point of failure; a longer support contract does not add resilience; and disabling monitoring only makes failures harder to detect. -
An Azure Region is:
Correct answer: B. A Region is a geography with one or more datacenters (and usually Availability Zones). It is not a rack, an account, or a VM size. -
An Availability Zone is:
Correct answer: A. Availability Zones are physically separate locations within a Region, used for resilience. They are not VM types, storage tiers, or tags. -
An Azure Virtual Machine is an example of which service model?
Correct answer: D. A virtual machine is Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS): you manage the OS and apps on provider-run infrastructure. SaaS is finished software, a database service is a managed data store (PaaS), and a CDN delivers content - none describe a raw VM. -
Azure SQL Database is best described as:
Correct answer: C. Azure SQL Database is a managed PaaS relational database. Object storage is Blob, networking is VNet, and identity is Entra ID. -
Azure Blob Storage stores:
Correct answer: B. Blob storage holds unstructured objects such as files and images. Relational tables, VMs and DNS are other services. -
Microsoft Cost Management helps you:
Correct answer: C. Cost Management monitors and optimises spend with budgets and analysis. Encryption, RBAC and containers are separate capabilities. -
A resource group in Azure is:
Correct answer: A. A resource group logically groups resources for management and lifecycle. It is not hardware, a currency, or a protocol. -
Azure Policy is used to:
Correct answer: B. Azure Policy enforces organisational rules and reports compliance. Global delivery (CDN), secrets (Key Vault) and virtual desktops (AVD) are other services. -
'Scalability' in the cloud means the ability to:
Correct answer: B. Scalability adjusts capacity to demand. Encryption, fixed cost and uptime are different concerns. -
The main benefit of a consumption-based pricing model is that you:
Correct answer: C. Consumption pricing charges only for what you actually use. You still need monitoring (it is not 'no monitoring'); usage is not unlimited or free; and it is the opposite of a single fixed annual fee. -
A public cloud differs from a private cloud in that a public cloud is:
Correct answer: D. A public cloud is owned and operated by a third-party provider and shared among many tenants. 'Run only on your own premises' describes a private cloud; public cloud is not always cheaper in every case, and it is reached over (not disconnected from) the internet. -
A hybrid cloud:
Correct answer: A. A hybrid cloud combines on-premises (or private) and public cloud resources. It still uses servers, it is not public-cloud-only (that would just be public cloud), and hybrid deployments are fully permitted. -
Disaster recovery in the cloud refers to:
Correct answer: D. Disaster recovery is about restoring services and data after a major outage. Scaling out web servers handles load, not recovery; encrypting data protects confidentiality; and daily backups are one input to DR but not the whole plan (which also covers failover and recovery time). -
Azure App Service is an example of which cloud model?
Correct answer: C. App Service is a managed platform (PaaS). IaaS gives raw VMs, SaaS gives finished apps, and on-premises is not cloud. -
Azure Functions is best described as:
Correct answer: D. Azure Functions is event-driven serverless compute that runs code on demand. A storage account holds data, a virtual machine is a full IaaS server you manage, and a firewall filters network traffic - none of which describe Functions. -
An Azure subscription is:
Correct answer: C. A subscription is a logical unit that links resources to billing and access boundaries. A network interface card, a backup copy and a single virtual machine are individual resources that live inside a subscription, not the grouping itself. -
Microsoft Entra ID is primarily used for:
Correct answer: B. Microsoft Entra ID handles identity and access management (sign-in, users, permissions). Object storage is Blob storage, load balancing is done by Load Balancer/Application Gateway, and cost analysis is Cost Management - all different services. -
An Azure Availability Zone protects against:
Correct answer: A. Availability Zones are physically separate datacenters within a region, guarding against datacenter failure. -
Azure Storage 'blob' is best for:
Correct answer: D. Blob storage holds unstructured objects. Relational data, VMs and DNS use other services. -
Azure Marketplace is:
Correct answer: A. Azure Marketplace is a catalog of solutions and services you can deploy. A monthly billing report comes from Cost Management, a virtual machine size defines a VM's CPU/memory, and an Azure region is a geographic location - none are a catalog. -
Azure Policy and Blueprints help an organization:
Correct answer: A. Azure Policy and Blueprints enforce standards and compliance across resources. Storing backups is Azure Backup, sending email is not an Azure governance tool, and writing application code is a developer task - none enforce governance. -
Tags in Azure are used to:
Correct answer: B. Tags add metadata (such as cost center or environment) to organize and track resources. Routing network traffic is done by networking rules, scaling VMs is handled by scale settings, and encrypting data is a security feature - tags do none of these. -
A service-level agreement (SLA) defines:
Correct answer: B. An SLA is the provider's commitment to uptime and performance. It is not a list of users, not just the price, and not the application's source code - those are unrelated to the availability guarantee. -
Role-based access control (RBAC) in Azure lets you:
Correct answer: A. RBAC grants users only the access they need at a chosen scope (least privilege). It does not disable security, does not give everyone administrator rights (that is the opposite of least privilege), and is not a way to store files. -
Microsoft's free Azure pricing/TCO and Cost Management tools help you mainly to:
Correct answer: A. These tools estimate and track spending (the Pricing Calculator/TCO estimate cost, Cost Management monitors it). Managing DNS, encrypting disks and writing code are unrelated functions handled by other tools. -
In the shared responsibility model, for SaaS the customer is mainly responsible for:
Correct answer: D. In SaaS the provider manages almost everything; the customer still owns data and access. The other items are the provider's job.
Practice questions FAQ
- Are these real AZ-900 exam questions?
- No. These are original study questions written to test understanding. They are not real exam questions, exam dumps, or copied from any provider.
- How should I use these practice questions?
- Answer each one, read the explanation (including why the wrong options are wrong), and use the per-domain score below to focus your revision on weak areas. Revisit before exam day.
- How many questions should I do before the exam?
- Enough to score consistently across every domain, alongside full-length practice from official or reputable providers. Understanding why each answer is right matters more than raw volume.
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- A good signal is consistently scoring around 80% or higher across all domains on questions you have not seen before, and being able to explain why the wrong options are wrong.
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- No. Dumps (real or leaked questions) breach provider policy, can void your certification, and do not build the understanding the exam actually tests.